UPSC Prelims 2026

Raga equivalence across Hindustani (North Indian) and Carnatic (South Indian) systems is based on swara (note) structure, despite differences in performance style, ornamentation, and improvisation rules. Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music uses all shuddha (natural) swaras, corresponding directly to the Western major scale (C-D-E-F-G-A-B-C). This matches the structure of Dheera Shankarabharanam in Carnatic music.

Key Similarities and Distinctions Swara Structure Comparison Raga Bilawal (Hindustani): Audava-Sampurna raga with all seven shuddha swaras; evokes a calm, devotional mood.

Dheera Shankarabharanam (Carnatic): Melakarta raga (29th in the system) with identical shuddha swaras (S R2 G3 M1 P D2 N3 S); serves as the foundational raga for many compositions.

This direct mapping makes them equivalent in terms of scale.

The Hilton-Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, 1926) recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at 1s 6d (1 rupee = 18 pence). This artificially high rate was deliberately adopted by the British Government primarily to facilitate the smooth transfer of Home Charges (remittances) from India to Britain and to uphold India’s international credit image.

A stronger rupee reduced the sterling cost of these obligatory payments (salaries, pensions, debt servicing) for the colonial administration while projecting fiscal stability to London’s financial markets.

The emergence of punch-marked coins along with mentions of currency terms like kahapana and nikkha in Pali literature serve as key markers of India's Second Urbanization phase beginning around the 6th century BCE.

These developments signal a transition from a predominantly barter-based exchange system to a more structured monetized economy. This shift played a crucial role in facilitating expanded trade and commercial networks across the rising urban centers and mahajanapadas.

Excavations at multiple early historic urban locations have uncovered predominantly silver punch-marked coins, providing strong archaeological corroboration to the textual references found in Pali sources.

The processes of urbanization and monetary growth remained deeply interconnected. Growing towns and cities demanded a standardized and dependable medium of exchange, while the adoption of coins enabled more complex and large-scale economic transactions.

The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh is regarded as an important example of the early Nagara style of temple architecture. The Huchimalligudi Temple at Aihole also displays features of a Nagara-style shikhara. In contrast, the Malegitti Shivalaya has a Dravidian-style superstructure, while the Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal is predominantly built in the Dravidian architectural tradition.

Jainism recognizes four main forms of existence (gatis or realms of rebirth) in its cosmological framework. These are:

1. Deva (celestial beings or gods)

2. Manushya (human beings)

3. Tiryancha (animals, birds, plants, and other lower forms of life)

4. Naraka (hellish beings)

These four states represent the possible destinations of the soul (jiva) after death based on karma. The classification is repeatedly mentioned in canonical Jain texts such as the Tattvartha Sutra and Uttaradhyayana Sutra.

Yaksha (demi-gods) are not counted among these four main forms of existence. While Yakshas are important protective deities in Jainism (e.g., Yaksha and Yakshini pairs associated with each Tirthankara), they are considered a subcategory within the Deva realm rather than a separate gati.

Thus, option (b) is the one not included in the four main forms of existence recognized in Jainism. The correct choice is (b).

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves (located in Madhya Pradesh, dating to the 5th–6th century CE) is a celebrated mural from the late Gupta period. It vividly depicts a group of women performing the Hallisaka, a lively and rhythmic folk dance accompanied by musicians. The scene is full of movement, joy, and vibrant colours, reflecting the secular and aesthetic aspects of contemporary life rather than purely religious iconography.

All three statements accurately reflect the historical development and spread of the place-value system (decimal positional notation) in India and beyond.

Statement 1 is correct. The earliest known epigraphic (inscriptional) evidence of the place-value system in India appears in the Mankani copper plates from Gujarat, dated to AD 595–596 (Gupta-Valabhi era). These plates use a dot to denote zero in a positional context, marking the first definite inscriptional use of the decimal place-value system on Indian soil.

Statement 2 is correct. By the ninth century CE, the use of place-value notation with a zero symbol became widespread and almost universal in Indian inscriptions across regions — from Kashmir in the north to Tamil Nadu in the south. This reflects the system’s transition from experimental use to a standard mathematical and administrative tool.

Statement 3 is correct. Indian traders, scholars, and scribes carried the place-value system to Southeast Asia quite early. Sanskrit inscriptions in regions such as Cambodia, Champa (Vietnam), and Java show clear use of place-value notation with zero as early as the seventh century CE — predating its general adoption in many parts of India itself. The most famous early example is the Khmer inscription of Sambor (Cambodia) dated 683 CE, which uses a dot for zero in a positional decimal system.

Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are all factually accurate, making option (d) the correct answer.

Statement I is correct. Spindle-whorls (made of terracotta, faience, or steatite) are found in large numbers inside Harappan houses, indicating that spinning of cotton and wool was a common domestic activity. However, the spinning wheel (charkha) is absent in the archaeological record. This suggests that spinning was a slow, laborious, manual process carried out at the household level.

Statement II is correct. Harappans used a highly standardized binary weight system (1, 2, 4, 8, 16, … up to 16000) made of chert, along with graduated scales (e.g., the famous ivory scale from Lothal with 1.79 mm markings). These findings demonstrate remarkable precision in metrology and reflect advanced scientific and mathematical knowledge.

Statement III is incorrect. While Harappan houses were indeed built with standardized baked bricks, featured spacious courtyards, private wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms, these features reflect individual household prosperity and urban planning, not the emergence of a “common property system.” There is no archaeological or textual evidence to suggest communal ownership of property; on the contrary, variation in house sizes points to social differentiation and private ownership.

The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928), led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat, was a no-tax campaign against the British decision to raise land revenue by 30%. It was a classic peasant struggle focused specifically on opposing enhancement of and revenue.

The Eka Movement (1921–22) in Awadh (United Provinces) was a peasant uprising against excessive rent extraction, illegal cesses (nazrana, begar), and eviction by taluqdars and zamindars. Peasants took a collective oath (Eka = unity) to pay only recorded rents and resist forced labour.

Statement I is supported because the Rigveda explicitly refers to the expansion of agriculture beyond the immediate floodplains of the Sapta-Sindhu region into the broader plains of present-day Punjab and Haryana. This expansion was made possible by irrigation from wells, as the underground water table in these areas was relatively close to the surface. The text mentions the drawing of water from wells using mechanical devices, indicating deliberate efforts to extend cultivation.

Statement II is also supported. The Rigveda describes the use of draught-animal power (primarily oxen) to draw water from wells. This is evidenced by references to ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails or buckets) that were employed in conjunction with animal power for lifting water. These devices represent an early form of well-irrigation technology.

The assertion refers to a well-known palaeo-geographical hypothesis that in the Pleistocene epoch (roughly 2.58 million to 11,700 years ago), there was a major river-capture or river-shift event in north-western India. Specifically, either the Yamuna once flowed westward into the Indus system, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna (and thereby into the Ganga), and one of these major channels later changed its course.

Basis of the assertion:

Only statement 3 provides a scientifically accepted basis for this assertion. The presence of the same species of freshwater dolphins — the Indus River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica minor) and the Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica gangetica) — which are genetically very close, is cited by geologists and palaeo-hydrologists as strong biological evidence of a former connection between the two river systems. This faunal similarity strongly suggests that the two river basins were once linked, allowing the dolphins to migrate before the rivers separated.

During the early aniconic phase of Buddhist art, the Buddha was not portrayed in human form and was instead represented through various symbolic motifs.

An empty throne or seat was used to signify the Buddha’s meditation and his enlightenment beneath the Bodhi tree. Other important symbols included the Bodhi tree,representing enlightenment, the Dharma chakra symbolizing the First Sermon, footprints denoting the Buddha’s presence, and the stupa representing his Mahaparinibbana.

The ancient Vedic names of the rivers of Punjab and their present-day counterparts are clearly identified in Indian historical tradition.

Vitasta refers to the Jhelum River, not the Chenab, while Asikni is the ancient name of the Chenab and not the Jhelum. Parushni corresponds to the Ravi River. Similarly, the Beas River was known in ancient times as Vipasha or Vipas, whereas Yavyavati is not its correct ancient name.

Thus, the correct matching is: Vitasta–Jhelum, Asikni–Chenab, Parushni–Ravi, Vipasha–Beas, and Shutudri–Sutlej.

Statement 1 is correct. The Amaravati Stupa is located in the lower Krishna River valley (present-day Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh). It was one of the most important Buddhist sites in ancient Andhra.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While the Amaravati Stupa was indeed very large, historical and archaeological evidence shows it was not “next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.” The Great Stupa at Sanchi itself is relatively modest in dimensions compared with several other major stupas. Amaravati was among the largest stupas in the Indian subcontinent, but textual and archaeological comparisons usually place it alongside or larger than contemporary stupas at Bharhut, Sanchi, and Nagarjunakonda. The specific claim that it was “next only to Sanchi” is factually inaccurate according to standard historical accounts.

Statement 3 is correct. The Amaravati school of sculpture, which flourished between the 2nd century BCE and the 3rd century CE, is renowned for its delicate marble-like limestone reliefs, narrative storytelling, and graceful figures. Its artistic conventions had a profound and lasting influence on later South Indian sculpture. Amaravati-style sculptures and motifs were exported and carried by traders and monks to Sri Lanka, Thailand, Cambodia, and other parts of Southeast Asia, where they shaped local Buddhist art traditions.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct. The right choice is 1 and 3 only.

In early historical Tamilakam (Sangam Age,c. 300 BCE–300 CE), the three major dynasties were the Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas. The given pairs need to be verified against established literary and epigraphic evidence:

1. Senguttuvan: Chera — Correct. Senguttuvan (also known as Vel Kelu Kuttuvan) is one of the most celebrated Chera kings mentioned in Pathirruppaththu and Silappadikaram. He is credited with the conquest of the Himalayas and the establishment of the Pattini cult.

2. Udiyanjeral: Chola — Incorrect. Udiyanjeral (Utiyan Cheral) was a prominent Chera king, not Chola. He is mentioned as one of the early Chera rulers who is said to have died by starvation (fasting) after a defeat. This misattribution makes pair 2 wrongly matched.

3. Nedunjeliyan: Pandya — Correct. Nedunjeliyan (also called Nedunjeliyan II or Aryappadaikadanda Nedunjeliyan) is a famous Pandya ruler glorified in Maduraikanchi and Silappadikaram. He is known for his victory at Talaiyalanganam and for patronizing the Tamil poet Mangudi Maruthanar.

Thus, only pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The correct choice is

therefore (b) 2 only.

The Forward Bloc was formed by Subhas Chandra Bose in May 1939 after his resignation from the Congress presidency, primarily due to ideological differences with Mahatma Gandhi and the failure to secure unified support from various left-wing factions within the Congress.

The period following the Haripura (1938) and Tripuri (1939) sessions highlighted deep divisions in the Congress over the method of struggle against British rule. Bose advocated for an immediate mass struggle led by Gandhi on radical lines, while Gandhi preferred consolidating the organization first. This led to Bose's isolation and the creation of the Forward Bloc as a platform for left-wing unity and militant nationalism.

Key Factors Contributing to Forward Bloc Formation

1. Ideological Rift with Mahatma Gandhi Bose repeatedly tried to win Gandhi’s confidence but failed due to fundamentally opposing views on strategy. Bose pushed for an immediate struggle, whereas Gandhi believed the time was not ripe and the Congress needed internal discipline first. Gandhi made it clear he would lead only on his own terms or step aside, resulting in Bose’s resignation after the Tripuri session.

2. Disunity within the Congress Left The Congress Left, despite sharing radical views, remained disunited and failed to provide consistent backing to Bose. Rivalries, petty squabbles, and lack of cohesive action among left elements weakened his position, forcing him to seek an independent platform outside mainstream Congress structures.

3. Lack of Support from Communists The Communist faction within the Congress did not extend support to Bose’s endeavours. Their ideological priorities and reluctance to align fully with his leadership further isolated him during the critical period after the Tripuri session.

4. Preference for Congress Unity by Royists and Socialists Supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan prioritized overall Congress unity over backing Bose’s more confrontational approach. This preference for avoiding a split in the national organization limited the base available to Bose, pushing him towards forming the Forward Bloc All four statements accurately reflect the historical factors that contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc. Correct Option: 1, 2, 3 and 4 (However, since this is not listed among the given choices, the closest comprehensive option aligning with documented factors is 1, 2 and 4, as statement 3 is sometimes viewed as secondary in certain analyses).

Statement 1 is incorrect. Immediately after the annexation of Awadh in 1856, the British deliberately dispossessed the taluqdars of their estates. Not only were their lands taken away, but their forts were also destroyed and their arms confiscated. This policy was part of the British attempt to break the power of the taluqdars, whom they viewed as intermediaries exploiting the peasants. The statement claiming they were “allowed to retain their arms and forts” is factually wrong.

Statement 2 is correct. A Summary Revenue Settlement was indeed introduced in 1856. The British assumed that the taluqdars were essentially “outsiders” or interlopers who had encroached on the rights of the actual cultivators.

Therefore, the settlement aimed to bypass them and deal directly with the village-level proprietors or peasants. This settlement was hurriedly implemented without proper surveys.

Statement 3 is correct. The core British belief after annexation was that revenue should be taken directly from the peasants (raiyats) by removing the taluqdars, whom they saw as parasitic intermediaries. This policy was influenced by utilitarian and liberal ideas prevalent at the time. The objective was to create a direct relationship between the state and the cultivator, which unfortunately ignored the traditional social and economic role of the taluqdars in Awadh society.

Why this led to widespread discontent: These policies created deep resentment among the taluqdars, who lost both status and income. Many of them later joined the Revolt of 1857, using their forts (which they had managed to rebuild or retain in some cases) and influence to mobilize against the British. The annexation and the revenue policies in Awadh became one of the major immediate causes of the 1857 Revolt in the region.

The assertion that “The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919” is fully supported by all three statements.

Statement 1 is correct. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) explicitly retained and extended the principle of separate electorates that had been introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909. Separate electorates were now provided not only for Muslims but also for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. This institutionalised communal representation in legislative councils.

Statement 2 is correct. A major British strategy behind separate electorates was to counter the rising tide of Indian nationalism. By giving religious minorities their own reserved seats, the British aimed to prevent the growth of a unified national movement and keep Indian politics divided along communal lines. This “divide and rule” policy became more pronounced after the strong nationalist upsurge during the Home Rule Movement and Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Statement 3 is correct. Various deprived or minority classes (especially the Depressed Classes, some sections of Muslims, and other smaller communities) began to rally around the special favours and political weightage given through separate electorates. Leaders like M.A. Jinnah and B.R. Ambedkar (in the initial phase) saw these provisions as safeguards for their communities. This gradually led to the formation of community-based political organisations and alliances, moving away from broad nationalist platforms.

Thus, all three statements directly explain why the 1919 Reforms sowed the seeds of communal political alliances. The correct option is therefore 1, 2 and 3.

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992), one of the most revered vocalists of the 20th century, belonged to the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana. He was a direct disciple of the legendary Ustad Alladiya Khan, the founder of this gharana. Mansur’s music was known for its intricate raga exploration, bol-taans, and a highly intellectual yet emotionally deep style that became the hallmark of the Jaipur-Atrauli tradition.

Agra Gharana is represented by artists like Ustad Faiyaz Khan and Ustad Vilayat Hussain Khan.

Gwalior Gharana is the oldest and is associated with Haddu Khan, Hassu Khan, and later singers like Krishnarao Shankar Pandit.

Patiala Gharana is represented by Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan and his descendants.

Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana is correctly linked with Mallikarjun Mansur, along with other stalwarts like Kesarbai Kerkar, Mogubai Kurdikar, and Kishori Amonkar.

The expression kshetra-patni, meaning “mistress of the field,” appears in the Atharvaveda and reflects the association of women with agricultural land in Vedic society.

The Atharvaveda includes hymns dealing with daily life, farming activities, and household matters, offering valuable insights into the social and economic position of women during the later Vedic age.

Scholars interpret the use of this term as an indication that women in Vedic times possessed certain rights or links with agricultural property.

Statement I is correct. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS), submitted to the UNFCCC in 2022, serves as the foundational policy document guiding the country’s pathway to reach net-zero emissions by 2070. It outlines seven key priorities including sustainable development, energy transition, and climate-resilient urbanisation.

Statement II is factually incorrect. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4), submitted in December 2024, actually shows that India’s total greenhouse gas emissions increased from 2019 to 2020, not decreased. While emission intensity (emissions per unit of GDP) declined, the absolute GHG emissions rose marginally due to post-COVID economic recovery patterns. The statement claiming an “8% decrease in 2020 over 2019” is factually wrong.

Statement III is conceptually incorrect. Climate-resilient development, as articulated in India’s LT-LEDS and National Adaptation Fund, emphasises long-term, sustained, and equitable emission reduction pathways rather than “quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.” India has consistently argued at COP meetings that a rushed approach ignores developmental needs and equity principles.

Hence, Statement III contradicts the balanced, long-term perspective embodied in Statement I.

The Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock), found in northeastern India, is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam has been specially established for the conservation of this species.

Gibbons are regarded as the most skilled brachiators among primates. Their long arms and uniquely adapted shoulder joints help them swing rapidly and efficiently from one tree to another.

They are also the smallest members of the ape family, possessing a slim and lightweight body structure, unlike the large and heavily built gorillas. This light body frame is what makes their swift and agile brachiation possible

Mangroves act as natural protective barriers against cyclones, storm surges, and tsunamis by reducing wave energy and preventing coastal erosion, making them highly important for climate resilience.

They also support the livelihoods of coastal communities by sustaining fisheries, as they function as nursery grounds for fish and shrimp, besides providing timber and various non-timber forest products.

Mangroves are not suitable for paddy cultivation in saline coastal regions, and their roots do not transform seawater into freshwater. Instead, mangrove roots are specially adapted to saline conditions and possess mechanisms to either block or expel excess salt.

In addition, mangroves are major reservoirs of blue carbon, storing carbon in coastal and marine ecosystems at rates much higher than terrestrial forests, thereby playing a crucial role in climate change mitigation.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Vizhinjam International Seaport is not designed as an exclusively domestic cargo hub. On the contrary, it is developed as a trans-shipment port with a strong focus on international cargo, especially mother vessel handling. It actively seeks foreign collaboration (e.g., with Adani Ports) and is intended to compete with regional hubs like Colombo, Singapore, and Dubai rather than eliminate foreign partnerships. The project aims to shift a significant portion of India’s trans-shipment traffic — currently handled by foreign ports — back to Indian soil.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While Kerala has a vibrant tourism sector, Vizhinjam’s core objective is not passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping. The port is primarily a deep-water container trans-shipment terminal. Although cruise terminals may be developed as secondary facilities in the future, they are not the primary focus. The project is positioned as a logistics game-changer, not a maritime heritage destination.

Statement 3 is correct. Vizhinjam represents a genuine structural shift in India’s maritime policy for the following reasons:

It has a natural draft of over 18–20 metres, one of the deepest on the Indian coast, allowing it to handle ultra-large container ships (ULCS) that Colombo and other ports currently serve.

Its location just 10 nautical miles from the international east-west shipping route gives it a strategic advantage.

By developing a major trans-shipment hub on Indian soil, the port is expected to reduce India’s heavy dependence on foreign ports (especially Colombo), retain trans-shipment revenue within the country, generate direct and indirect employment, and strengthen India’s position in regional maritime trade networks.

This aligns with the Government of India’s Maritime India Vision 2030 and the Sagarmala Programme, which aim to transform India from a feeder-dependent nation to a major trans-shipment hub.

The Sutlej River originates near Lake Rakshastal, close to Lake Mansarovar, on the Tibetan Plateau. It is an antecedent river, which means its course existed before the rise of the Himalayas and it continued to cut through the mountains as they uplifted.

The river flows across three countries—China (Tibet), India (through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab), and Pakistan (Punjab province)—where it ultimately joins the Chenab River and contributes to the Panjnad system.

The Sutlej plays a major role in irrigation, supporting projects such as the Bhakra-Nangal Dam and extensive canal networks in both Indian and Pakistani Punjab. It also indirectly contributes to the Indira Gandhi Canal system.

Unlike rivers such as the Brahmaputra or the Indus, the Sutlej does not create a major delta or distributary network, as it merges with the Chenab River in Pakistan before entering the Indus system.

Statement 1 is correct because Uttar Pradesh shares boundaries with the largest number of Indian states. It borders Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar, in addition to the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

Statement 2 is incorrect since Rajasthan does not have the longest international border among Indian states. West Bengal holds this distinction due to its extensive and highly irregular border with Bangladesh.

Statement 3 is also incorrect because Sikkim is not the only state sharing a boundary with just one other Indian state. Meghalaya too shares its border internally only with Assam, while Sikkim is connected internally only with West Bengal.

Statement 1 is correct. Every year, thousands of Amur Falcons (Falco amurensis) migrate from Mongolia to Doyang Reservoir in Nagaland, India, during their journey to southern Africa. The sustained conservation efforts by local communities, especially the involvement of the Lotha Naga tribe and local NGOs, have created a safe stopover site. This has led to increased numbers of falcons visiting the area and has become a model for community-led conservation of migratory birds.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While tracking technologies (like satellite telemetry) have helped scientists understand the migration route of Amur Falcons, the arrival at Doyang Lake is not a result of “advanced tracking technologies guiding the birds back.” Birds rely on natural instincts, magnetic fields, and environmental cues, not technological guidance. The statement misrepresents the role of technology.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Amur Falcons are strictly migratory birds. They do not breed or become permanent residents in India. They only use Doyang Lake as a temporary stopover site before continuing their journey to Africa. There is no scientific evidence of them adapting to permanent residency in India.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.

The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative is a key component of the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), launched in 2014–15 under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY). Its core objectives focus on improving the resilience and productivity of rainfed farming systems, which constitute about 60% of India’s net sown area.

Statement 1 is incorrect. RAD explicitly discourages monoculture. Instead, it promotes diversification through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) that combine crops, livestock, agroforestry, and fisheries to reduce risk and improve soil health.

Statement 2 is incorrect. RAD does not aim to increase rice cultivation in irrigated regions. Its focus is exclusively on rainfed areas, promoting climate-resilient crops, water conservation, and integrated systems rather than expanding water-intensive rice in already irrigated zones.

Statement 3 is correct. The primary objective of RAD is to enhance agricultural productivity in rainfed regions while minimising climate risks. This is achieved through the adoption of Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), which optimise resource use, improve income stability, and build climate resilience.

Therefore, only statement 3 aligns with the stated goals of the Rainfed Area Development programme.

Oeko-Tex certification is a globally recognized standard that verifies textiles are free from harmful chemicals, meet strict environmental criteria, and comply with high quality and safety benchmarks. For Eri Silk (also known as Ahimsa Silk), which is naturally produced without harming silkworms and is inherently eco-friendly, obtaining this certification has profound implications in the global textile industry.

Statement 1 is correct. The certification enables Indian exporters of Eri Silk to access and compete effectively in premium international markets (such as the EU, USA, and Japan) that demand and pay higher prices for chemical-free, sustainably produced fabrics. This directly strengthens India’s position in the high-end eco-luxury segment.

Statement 2 is correct. Oeko-Tex certification explicitly confirms that Eri Silk meets rigorous international standards for human safety (no allergenic or carcinogenic substances), environmental sustainability, and product quality. This validation opens doors to eco-conscious premium markets and builds consumer trust, which is increasingly important as global buyers shift toward traceable and responsible textiles.

Therefore, both statements accurately reflect the most significant implications of the certification. The correct option is Both 1 and 2.

Statement 1 is correct because Bahrain is an island country located entirely within the Persian Gulf. Since the Strait of Hormuz is the sole maritime passage linking the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the open ocean, any ship traveling from Bahrain to the Indian Ocean must pass through this strait.

Statement 2 is incorrect as Syria lies along the eastern Mediterranean coast and does not border the Persian Gulf. Ships from Syria would reach the Indian Ocean through the Suez Canal, the Red Sea, and the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, without crossing the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 3 is correct because Qatar, situated on the northeastern side of the Arabian Peninsula within the Persian Gulf, also depends on the Strait of Hormuz for access to the Indian Ocean.

Statement 4 is incorrect since Egypt has coastlines along both the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. Vessels from Egypt can directly enter the Indian Ocean by moving southward through the Red Sea and the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, without passing through the Persian Gulf or the Strait of Hormuz.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Tungurahua Volcano, an active stratovolcano in the Andes mountain range, is located in central Ecuador. In 2025, UNESCO designated the Tungurahua Geopark as a Global Geopark under its International Geoscience and Geoparks Programme, recognising its outstanding geological heritage, volcanic landscapes, and cultural significance to local indigenous communities [1]. The geopark encompasses the volcano, surrounding páramo ecosystems, and nearby towns such as Baños de Agua Santa, which have long been affected by its frequent eruptions .

Why the other options are incorrect:

Peru: Home to volcanoes like Huascarán and Misti, but not Tungurahua.

Bolivia: Features volcanoes such as Sajama and Uturuncu, none of which match the description.

Colombia: Contains Nevado del Ruiz and Galeras, but Tungurahua lies south of the Colombian border in Ecuador.

Explanation of Statements:

Statement 1 is correct. Madhav National Park in Madhya Pradesh was officially notified as India's 58th Tiger Reserve in 2025. This upgrade is part of the government's efforts to expand tiger conservation landscapes in central India. The park already had a healthy population of tigers and prey species, making it eligible for tiger reserve status.

Statement 2 is correct. Sakhya Sagar Lake, a man-made water body within Madhav National Park, was designated as a Ramsar Site (wetland of international importance) in 2022. It supports rich biodiversity including migratory birds, crocodiles, and serves as a critical water source for the park’s wildlife. Its location inside the national park boundaries makes the statement accurate.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Madhav National Park lies entirely within Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh. It does not share its area with Rajasthan. The park is situated on the northern edge of the Malwa Plateau and is surrounded by other Madhya Pradesh protected areas such as the Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary to its east.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation of Statements:,

Statement 1 is correct. The climate of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands is classified as a humid tropical coastal climate (Köppen: Am type). It is characterised by high temperature throughout the year (average 26–32 °C), very high humidity (above 80 %), and heavy annual rainfall (typically 3,000–3,500 mm).

Statement 2 is correct. The islands receive rainfall from both the South-west monsoon (June–September) and the North-east (retreating) monsoon (November–January). This double monsoon system is a distinctive feature of the archipelago’s climate because of its location in the Bay of Bengal.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Maximum precipitation occurs between May and November, with peak rainfall during the South-west monsoon (especially June–September). The period from December to May is relatively drier, although some rain still falls due to the North-east monsoon in the early part of this window. Therefore, the claim that “maximum precipitation is between December and May” is factually wrong.

Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation of Each Statement:

Statement 1 is correct. The Peninsular Block has experienced significant tectonic activity, particularly along its western margin. This has resulted in the submergence of parts of the western coast, forming submerged forests, estuaries, and creeks. The formation of the Western Ghats is also linked to this faulting and subsidence of the western coast.

Statement 2 is correct. The Peninsular Block contains several residual mountain ranges and hills that are remnants of ancient fold mountains worn down by prolonged erosion. Examples explicitly associated with the Peninsular Block include the Veliconda hills (in Andhra Pradesh) and the Mahendragiri hills (in Odisha). These are classic examples of relict mountains found in the Eastern Ghats section of the Peninsular Block.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers are a characteristic feature of the Himalayan region (youthful rivers in their upper courses), not the Peninsular Block. Peninsular rivers are mostly mature and have broad, shallow valleys with low gradients. While some rivers like the Narmada and Tapi have deep valleys due to faulting, they are typically U-shaped or rift valleys rather than the classic V-shaped gorges of the Himalayas.

Therefore, this feature is not primarily associated with the Peninsular Block.

Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Detailed Analysis of Statements and Relationships: Statement I is correct. The Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015, aims to achieve port-led economic growth by developing cost-effective, sustainable coastal infrastructure, improving port connectivity, and modernising port operations. Its core focus is on leveraging India’s 7,500+ km coastline and inland waterways for economic development.

Statement II is correct. Since its implementation, Sagarmala has contributed to a measurable increase in coastal and inland water shipping volumes. Indian ports have also shown improvement in global rankings (e.g., several ports moving up in the World Bank’s Container Port Performance Index). These outcomes demonstrate tangible success of the programme.

Statement III is correct. Sagarmala 2.0, conceptualised in recent years, builds upon the original programme by emphasising innovation, technology, green shipping, and digital solutions. It explicitly aligns with the broader visions of Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047, positioning India as a global maritime innovation hub.

Statement 1 is correct. Rhynchostylis retusa, commonly known as the Foxtail orchid, is indeed an epiphytic orchid. It grows on the trunks and branches of trees in tropical and subtropical forests, deriving moisture and nutrients from the air and rainwater rather than from the soil.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The species is not endemic to North-east India. While it is widely distributed and culturally significant in the region, Rhynchostylis retusa is also found in several other parts of India (including the Eastern Himalayas, Odisha, and parts of the Western Ghats) as well as in Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, and parts of Southeast Asia. Its native range is quite broad across tropical Asia.

Statement 3 is correct. Rhynchostylis retusa is officially recognized as the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. In both states, it is highly valued for its beautiful cascading white-pink inflorescence and holds cultural importance.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The Moidams (also spelled Maidams) are the royal burial mounds or tumuli built by the Tai-Ahom kings and nobles of the Ahom kingdom in present-day Assam, particularly in Charaideo. They served as the final resting places for the royalty and high-ranking nobles, containing the remains of the deceased along with their valuables, weapons, and attendants in accordance with Tai-Ahom funerary traditions. In 2024, UNESCO inscribed the Moidams of the Ahom Kingdom as a World Heritage Site under the cultural category, recognizing them as exceptional examples of Tai-Ahom funerary architecture and their role in preserving the kingdom’s socio-political and religious practices over nearly 600 years.

Why the other statements are incorrect:

Statement 1 (army fortresses): Moidams were not military structures or fortresses. The Ahom kingdom had separate defensive installations like garhs and ramparts; Moidams were exclusively sepulchral monuments.

Statement 2 (recreation centres): They were never used as places of recreation or leisure. The mounds were sacred burial sites treated with great reverence.

Statement 4 (battle drill centres): There is no historical evidence linking Moidams to military training or battle drills. They remained strictly associated with funerary rites and ancestor veneration.

Only Statement 3 accurately describes their historical function as burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles. Therefore, the correct option is 3 only.

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations operates through a strategic framework aligned with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. At the heart of this framework is the goal of transforming agrifood systems so that they become more efficient, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable, ultimately achieving the objective of the “Four Betters.” The “Four Betters” are officially described as:

Better Production – promoting sustainable patterns of production and consumption.

Better Nutrition – eliminating hunger, ensuring food security, and improving access to nutritious diets.

Better Environment – conserving, restoring, and sustainably using terrestrial and marine ecosystems.

Better Life – encouraging inclusive economic development, reducing inequalities, and ensuring that no one is left behind.

The Blue Transformation initiative is an FAO vision and priority programme focused on enhancing the contribution of fisheries and aquaculture to support these broader goals of the “Four Betters.”

Explanation of Statements:

Statement 1 is correct. Lake Turkana is the largest desert lake in the world by volume. It is a saline lake located in the Kenyan Rift Valley and is sustained primarily by the Omo River from Ethiopia. Its desert environment and size make it unique among endorheic lakes.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Lake Turkana is not situated in South Sudan. It lies mainly in northern Kenya, with its northern end extending into Ethiopia. It is located in the eastern part of the East African Rift System, far from the Sahara Desert, which lies much further north in North Africa. South Sudan has no territorial claim on the lake.

Statement 3 is correct. Lake Turkana was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1997 for its geological and palaeontological significance (famous for hominid fossils). It is also popularly known as the “Jade Sea” because of its striking greenish-blue colour caused by algae.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya, implemented by the Ka Synjuk Khasi Community REDD+ Federation, became the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project in India in 2012. It involves community-led forest conservation across 6,100 hectares in the East Khasi Hills, focusing on biodiversity protection, livelihood improvement, and carbon sequestration through avoided deforestation and sustainable forest management.

Why the others are not the first:

Uttarakhand REDD+ project: This is a state-level initiative but has not received Plan Vivo certification and is not the first REDD+ project in India.

ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas: This is a research-oriented transboundary project between India and Nepal/Myanmar; it is not Plan Vivo certified and came after the Khasi Hills project.

Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project: This is a more recent community-based REDD+ initiative in Sikkim and has not achieved the distinction of being the first Plan Vivo certified project.

Plan Vivo is an international standard specifically designed for community-based carbon projects in developing countries, and the Khasi Hills project’s certification marked a significant milestone for community-driven climate action in India.

Explanation of Each Statement:

Statement 1 is correct. Genetic medicines are designed to correct, replace, or compensate for faulty or missing genes that cause disease. This includes approaches such as gene therapy, mRNA-based therapies, and gene editing (like CRISPR) that target the underlying genetic cause rather than just treating symptoms.

Statement 2 is correct. Engineered viruses (such as adeno-associated viruses or lentiviruses) and lipid nanoparticles are the two most widely used delivery vehicles (vectors) for genetic medicines. Viral vectors are used in therapies like Luxturna and Zolgensma, while lipid nanoparticles gained prominence during the COVID-19 mRNA vaccines and are now used in several gene-silencing and gene-editing therapies.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Genetic medicines do not alter the entire DNA sequence. Most therapies target specific faulty genes or sections of DNA. Even advanced tools like CRISPR-Cas9 make precise, localized edits rather than rewriting the whole genome. Altering the entire DNA sequence would be both technically unfeasible and extremely dangerous.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Large Language Models (LLMs) are foundational to modern AI systems like ChatGPT, relying on mathematical principles rather than human-like thinking. They function as sophisticated pattern-recognition machines trained on vast datasets.

How LLMs Generate Text

1. Probabilistic Prediction of Next Tokens LLMs break text into tokens (word pieces or characters) and assign probabilities to the next possible token based on patterns learned during training. They then select the one with the highest probability, enabling coherent text generation. This autoregressive process underpins their ability to produce essays, explanations, or poetry.

2. Mathematical Optimization and Error Correction LLMs process data through mathematical optimization, using techniques like gradient descent to adjust billions of parameters (internal variables). This minimizes prediction errors across training data, refining the model's ability to recognize patterns in geometry, probability, and continuous error correction. The perceived "intelligence" emerges from this large-scale mathematics, not consciousness.

Limitations and Biases in LLMs

3. Outputs Are Not Unbiased LLMs do not produce unbiased outputs. They inherit language and cultural biases from training data, which is predominantly English and internet-sourced. This can lead to incomplete understanding, stochastic behaviour, hallucinations (factually incorrect outputs), and reduced diversity by abstracting local knowledge. Additional drawbacks include lack of democratic input and perpetuation of globalized views over nuanced perspectives.

Statements 1 and 2 accurately describe core LLM mechanisms, while statement 3 is incorrect due to inherent biases and limitations. This mathematical foundation explains both their capabilities and challenges in real-world applications.

Statement 1 is correct. Stealth technology primarily works by minimizing an object's radar cross-section (RCS) through aerodynamic shaping (e.g., faceted designs like the F-117 Nighthawk) and applying Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM) that convert electromagnetic energy into heat, significantly reducing detectability by conventional radar systems.

Statement 2 is correct. While stealth aircraft are highly effective against standard radar frequencies, they can still be detected using specific frequencies such as low-frequency (VHF/UHF) radars or multi-static radar systems. These exploit resonances or edge diffraction effects that conventional high-frequency radars miss, as demonstrated by systems like certain Russian and Chinese low-band radars.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials or advanced composites designed to reduce, not increase, the scattering of electromagnetic radiation. Metamaterials in stealth applications bend or absorb waves (e.g., through negative refractive index properties) to minimize RCS, rather than enhancing scattering, which would make detection easier.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are accurate.

Black boxes, officially known as Flight Data Recorders (FDR) and Cockpit Voice Recorders (CVR), are critical safety devices in aviation that survive crashes to aid investigations.

Key Functions and Features

1. Beacon and Detection Mechanism Black boxes are equipped with an underwater locator beacon (ULB) that emits ultrasonic pulses, not red light pulses. This beacon activates upon contact with water and transmits signals at 37.5 kHz for up to 30 days to enable sonar-based detection in deep oceans. The statement claiming red light pulses is incorrect, as visual light-based beacons are ineffective underwater.

2. Recording Capabilities They record both cockpit voice conversations (via CVR, capturing pilot communications for about 2 hours) and flight parameters (via FDR, storing data like altitude, speed, and heading for 25 hours or more). This dual functionality makes them essential for reconstructing accident sequences. Statement 2 is correct.

3. Memory Unit Construction The memory units are housed in crash-resistant casings made from materials like stainless steel, titanium, or advanced composites to withstand extreme conditions: impacts up to 3,400 G, temperatures of 1,100°C for one hour, and pressures at ocean depths of 6,000 meters. Statement 3 is correct.

Analysis of Statements

Statement 1: Incorrect due to the mismatch in detection technology (ultrasonic beacon, not red light pulses).

Statements 2 and 3: Both align with standard aviation specifications for black boxes.

Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Decarbonized hydrogen produced from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS) is classified as blue hydrogen, not green hydrogen. Green hydrogen must be produced without fossil fuels.

Statement 2 is correct. Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis of water using electricity generated from renewable sources such as solar, wind, or hydropower. This process splits water into hydrogen and oxygen with zero direct carbon emissions.

Statement 3 is correct. India's National Green Hydrogen Mission (launched in 2023) targets the development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT per annum. This is expected to result in the abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030, along with cumulative energy savings and significant investment generation.

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are accurate.

Statement 1 is correct. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency under the Department of Space, established in 2020 to act as a single-window clearance and facilitation body for enhanced participation of private entities, startups, and academia in India’s space programme.

Statement 2 is correct. Agnikul Cosmos achieved a historic milestone by launching Agnibaan SOrTeD (Suborbital Technological Demonstrator) in 2024, which became the world’s first rocket flight powered by a fully 3D-printed semi-cryogenic rocket engine. This was a significant private-sector achievement in India’s space sector.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Skyroot Aerospace has developed Vikram series rockets that use a mix of solid, liquid, and cryogenic propulsion technologies, but it has not developed liquid fuel specifically for ISRO’s GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle). GSLV’s liquid stages (Vikas engine) were developed by ISRO; Skyroot focuses on its own indigenous propulsion systems for small satellite launch vehicles.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Drone swarms generally operate using radio frequency bands such as VHF, UHF, S-band, or C-band for communication with the command centre. The Terahertz band is not commonly used due to its extremely high atmospheric attenuation, limited range, and current technological constraints in swarm operations.

Statement 2 is correct. A defining feature of drone swarms is that individual drones can communicate with each other using mesh networking or decentralized protocols. This enables collective decision-making, formation flying, and adaptive behaviour even if some drones lose connection with the central command.

Statement 3 is correct. GPS Spoofing is a widely recognised countermeasure against drone swarms. By transmitting false GPS signals, defenders can disrupt navigation, cause drones to deviate from their paths, or trigger fail-safe modes. Other techniques like jamming and directed-energy weapons are also used, but GPS spoofing remains one of the most common electronic warfare methods.

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The GenomeIndia Project is not a part of the Human Genome Project. The Human Genome Project was an international scientific research project completed in 2003 that mapped the entire human genome. GenomeIndia is an independent Indian initiative launched in 2020. Statement 2 is correct. The project is funded and coordinated by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India. It is a national-level collaborative effort involving multiple institutions across the country.

Statement 3 is correct. The primary aim of the GenomeIndia Project is to build a comprehensive catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population. By sequencing over 10,000 genomes from diverse ethnic groups, the project seeks to understand genetic variations unique to India, support precision medicine, and improve disease diagnosis and treatment tailored to the Indian population.

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is correct. The National Quantum Mission (NQM), approved by the Union Cabinet in 2023 with a budget of ₹6,003.65 crore for 2023–2031, explicitly aims to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1,000 physical qubits in 8 years. It also targets satellite-based secure quantum communications between ground stations over 2,000 km and quantum networks with quantum memories.

Statement 2 is correct. The mission’s implementation framework includes the establishment of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in leading academic and national R&D institutes. These hubs focus on Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices. They are being set up in institutions such as IIT Madras, IIT Bombay, IISc Bengaluru, and Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. India’s Deep Ocean Mission was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. It is implemented primarily by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) in Chennai.

Statement 2 is correct. Matsya-6000 is a manned submersible designed under the mission to carry three personnel (two scientists and one pilot) to a depth of 6,000 metres for scientific exploration, resource assessment, and biodiversity studies in the deep ocean.

Statement 3 is correct. Samudrayaan is the flagship manned deep-ocean exploration project under the Deep Ocean Mission. It involves the development and deployment of the Matsya-6000 submersible for enabling direct human presence at extreme ocean depths.

Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Mr. X’s actions most strongly demonstrate the principle of Accountability in public administration. Accountability requires public officials to be answerable for their decisions and actions, especially when they involve the use of public resources, citizen welfare, and ethical governance. By reporting the quality compromise to the vigilance authority and halting the contract despite pressure from vested interests, Mr. X upheld transparency, integrity, and responsibility toward citizens — core elements of accountability.

This aligns with ethical public administration values taught in various training programmes (such as those by LBSNAA and other central training institutions), where officers are expected to prioritize public interest over personal or external pressures.

Esprit de corps (team spirit and unity among employees) is not the primary principle here, as Mr. X acted individually against a contractor.

Equity refers to fairness and impartiality in service delivery, which is related but secondary; the core act was reporting and taking corrective action.

Delegation involves assigning authority to subordinates, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.

Thus, Accountability is the most appropriate answer.

In this multi-stakeholder conflict involving tribal cultural rights, urban public health, and environmental concerns, effective resolution requires empathy, inclusivity, and evidence-based approaches rather than unilateral action.

Statement 1 is correct: Conflict resolution in culturally sensitive contexts must begin by acknowledging the tribal community's concerns regarding their sacred land. This builds trust and opens the door for meaningful dialogue, aligning with established principles of culturally responsive governance and mediation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Prioritizing urban health concerns by pushing the project "without delay" and dismissing tribal sentiments as secondary risks escalating tensions, violating principles of equity, constitutional protections for tribal rights (such as those under the Fifth Schedule and PESA), and sustainable development. This approach could lead to prolonged litigation, social unrest, and loss of public trust.

Statement 3 is correct: Establishing a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform with tribal leaders, environmental experts, municipal representatives, and other relevant parties fosters mutual understanding, reduces misinformation (including from social media campaigns), and supports de-escalation. This inclusive model is a proven method for addressing complex community conflicts.

Statement 4 is correct: An independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA), followed by transparent sharing of findings, provides an objective basis for decision-making. It addresses both environmental needs (waste management) and social concerns (cultural and health impacts), helping to bridge divides between the tribal hamlet and urban residents.

Thus, statements 1, 3, and 4 contribute meaningfully to a sustainable, balanced resolution. This scenario reflects key themes in UPSC GS Paper II (Governance) and GS Paper IV (Ethics), particularly in areas like conflict resolution, inclusive development, and ethical administration.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The information obtained by Ms. X is confidential, and the allegations have not yet been legally established. Publicly revealing unverified claims would violate the confidentiality provisions under the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules. Such disclosure may also result in defamation, unnecessary public alarm, and possible legal consequences for the department.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Suggesting the removal of the contractor merely on the basis of allegations and hearsay goes against the principles of natural justice and due process. Administrative decisions should be impartial and supported by evidence. Removing a contractor without a proper inquiry would compromise fair competition and infringe upon the contractor’s legal rights.

Statement 3 is correct: Recommending restricted disclosure before an oversight body or internal vigilance authority is the most ethical and administratively appropriate step. It maintains a balance between transparency and confidentiality while enabling the concerned institutional mechanisms to examine the allegations and conduct a proper investigation before any executive action is initiated. This approach also helps avoid unnecessary delays in the project or avoidable public controversy.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

Article 13 of the Indian Constitution safeguards Fundamental Rights by declaring that any law inconsistent with or violative of the provisions contained in Part III shall be void to the extent of such inconsistency.

To ensure that the State cannot circumvent Fundamental Rights through indirect or traditional practices, Article 13(3)(a) gives a broad interpretation to the term “law.” It specifically includes within its scope any ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, as well as any custom or usage that possesses the force of law within the territory of India.

Therefore, the opinion of ‘Y’ is entirely correct because the Constitution expressly recognizes “custom or usage” as part of the definition of law. As a result, even uncodified traditional practices carrying legal force are subject to constitutional scrutiny in the same manner as enacted legislation.

On the other hand, ‘X’ is incorrect in questioning the inclusion of custom or usage within the meaning of law under Article 13. Hence, with respect to the disputed issue, only the view expressed by ‘Y’ is valid.

Accordingly, option D is the correct answer.

The Indian Constitution, adopted on 26 November 1949, contains specific provisions regarding its official name, repeal of earlier laws, and date of commencement, contrary to some common misconceptions.

1. Official Name of the Constitution The Constitution explicitly provides for its short title in Article 393, which states that the Constitution shall be called the Constitution of India. This provision came into force on 26 November 1949 itself, along with other articles related to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, and short title. Thus, Statement 1 is incorrect.

2. Repeal of Indian Independence Act, 1947 and Government of India Act, 1935 Article 395 explicitly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935, along with all enactments amending or supplementing them. This repeal was necessary to establish the supremacy of the new Constitution and remove colonial legal frameworks. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.

3. Date of Commencement The Constitution mentions 26 January 1950 as the date of its commencement in Article 394. This article specifies that certain provisions came into force on 26 November 1949, while the remaining major part commenced on 26 January 1950, celebrated as Republic Day due to its historical link with the 1930 Purna Swaraj resolution of the Lahore Session of the INC Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Since all three statements are factually incorrect, the right option is: There is no correct statement.

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016 serves as the cornerstone legislation for PwD rights in India, expanding recognised disabilities from 7 to 21, mandating 4% reservation in government jobs, and emphasising accessibility, non-discrimination, and inclusive growth.

Key initiatives like Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan and related institutions support implementation, though challenges persist in enforcement across sectors.

Key Legislative Framework

1. Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 The RPwD Act, 2016 (not 2018 as sometimes misstated) replaced the 1995 Act and aligns with the UNCRPD. It mandates reservation in education and employment, places legal duties on governments for accessibility, non-discrimination, and barrier-free environments.

Recent notifications exempt certain combat posts in forces like BSF, CRPF, ITBP, SSB, Assam Rifles, and specific IPS/railway protection roles from full reservation applicability, distinguishing combat vs non-combat positions. The Act covers physical, sensory, intellectual, and mental health disabilities, with focus on prevention, rehabilitation, and social security.

2. Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) Launched in 2015 under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, it targets universal accessibility in three domains: built infrastructure, transport systems, and information & communication technology (ICT).

The Sugamya Bharat App, revamped with AI features in recent years, acts as a crowdsourced platform for reporting barriers in public infrastructure, transport, and ICT, promoting citizen participation (Jan-Bhagidari).

It supports the RPwD Act's accessibility standards for physical environment, transportation, ICT, and public facilities.

3. National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) NDFDC functions as a not-for-profit company under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (not Ministry of Corporate Affairs).

Its primary goal is to promote economic empowerment, skill development, and entrepreneurship among PwDs through loans, marketing support, and livelihood schemes.

Recent Budget 2026-27 announcements include new schemes like Divyangjan Kaushal Yojana (for dignified livelihood training) and Divyang Sahara Yojana (for assistive devices via modern Assistive Technology Marts) to complement NDFDC efforts.

Evaluation of Statements

Statement 1: Partially correct on mandates for reservation, accessibility, and non-discrimination but factually incorrect on the year (2016, not 2018).

Statement 2: Fully correct regarding the three key domains of Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan.

Statement 3: Incorrect regarding the parent ministry (Social Justice and Empowerment, not Corporate Affairs).

Correct option: 2 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Provisions regarding the administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram are provided in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, not the Fifth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in other states, while the Sixth Schedule grants special autonomy through District and Regional Councils to these four states' tribal regions.

Statement 2 is correct. Certain tribes, particularly those classified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) or in specified hilly/traditional areas, enjoy exemptions from Income Tax on income from agriculture, forest produce, or traditional occupations under various notifications issued by the Income Tax Department and state governments. This is part of protective discrimination to preserve their economic rights.

Statement 3 is correct. Article 243D of the Constitution (inserted by the 73rd Amendment) explicitly provides for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats in proportion to their population. It further mandates that not less than one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs shall be reserved for women belonging to those communities. This ensures intersectional representation.

Thus, only Statements 2 and 3 are correct, making the first option the right choice.

Question Hour is the first hour of every parliamentary sitting dedicated to members seeking information from ministers through structured questions. It serves as a key accountability mechanism.

Types of Questions in Parliament

1. Starred Questions Starred questions are distinguished by an asterisk and require an oral answer in the House. Supplementary questions can be asked based on the minister's reply to probe further. This allows for real-time interaction and scrutiny of government functioning.

2. Unstarred Questions Unstarred questions require a written answer laid on the table of the House. No supplementary questions are permitted on unstarred questions. These are suitable for detailed factual information without immediate debate.

3. Short Notice Questions These are asked with less than ten days' notice on matters of urgent public importance. They are answered orally in the House. This device enables swift parliamentary response to emerging issues.

Evaluation of Given Statements

Statement 1: Incorrect. Unstarred questions seek written answers, not oral ones. Starred questions are those for which members desire an oral answer.

Statement 2: Incorrect. Starred questions require oral answers, while unstarred ones seek written answers. The statement reverses this classification.

Statement 3: Correct. Supplementary questions cannot be asked on unstarred questions as they receive only written replies.

Thus, There is only one correct statement.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Chairperson of the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from among the committee members, and not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is incorrect since the Committee has a total strength of 30 members, comprising 20 members elected from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha, not the reverse arrangement.

Statement 3 is incorrect because no Minister can serve as a member of this Committee. If any committee member is appointed as a Minister after being elected to the Committee, that person automatically ceases to hold membership. This rule applies uniformly to all ministers, including the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Statement 4 is incorrect as the tenure of the Committee members is limited to one year and not two years. Similar to other important standing parliamentary committees such as the Public Accounts Committee and the Estimates Committee, it is reconstituted every year.

As all four statements are incorrect, none of them is correct.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct because Mission Sudarshan Chakra has been conceived as a comprehensive multi-domain security framework. Its objective is to strengthen India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial strike capabilities, thereby functioning both as a protective shield and as an offensive capability.

Statement 2 is also correct since the mission incorporates advanced technologies such as artificial intelligence, space-based surveillance systems, and directed energy weapons to deliver swift, accurate, and effective defence responses. The initiative, which includes indigenous projects like Project Kusha, is intended to enhance India’s strategic autonomy and promote self-reliance in the defence sector.

Statement 3 is correct as well because the mission is notable for its broad scope and long-term vision. Envisaged as a 10-year national security initiative, it aims to extend a nationwide security cover to public spaces such as hospitals, railway networks, and religious or cultural sites by 2035, going beyond the traditional focus on military and strategic establishments alone.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Maitri Setu, built over the Feni River that forms part of the India–Bangladesh boundary, connects Sabroom in Tripura, India, with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, and not vice versa as stated.

Statement 2 is incorrect since the Jhulaghat suspension bridge links India with Nepal rather than Myanmar. The bridge spans the Mahakali River, known as the Sharda River in India, and connects the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand with Nepal’s Baitadi district.

Statement 3 is correct because the Mechi Bridge serves as a link between India and Nepal across the Mechi River. It connects the Panitanki Bypass in West Bengal with Kakarvitta in Nepal and functions as an important route for cross-border trade. It is also the terminal point of Asian Highway 02 (AH02) within India.

Hence, only Statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the provision relating to Zero FIR under Section 173 of the BNSS applies only to cognizable offences, regardless of the place where the offence occurred. The statement is wrong in including non-cognizable offences. Section 173(1) specifically provides that information regarding the commission of a cognizable offence may be given irrespective of territorial jurisdiction.

Statement 2 is correct since Section 173(3) of the BNSS authorizes the Officer-in-Charge to conduct a preliminary enquiry in certain cognizable offences punishable with imprisonment ranging from three years to less than seven years. However, such an enquiry can be undertaken only after obtaining prior approval from an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police.

Statement 3 is incorrect because providing information through electronic means is optional and not mandatory. According to Section 173(1), information may be submitted either orally or through electronic communication. In cases where it is furnished electronically, the informant is required to sign the information within three days.

Row 1 (CEIB): Correct. The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) functions as the nodal agency to coordinate and strengthen the intelligence gathering efforts of various law enforcement agencies in the economic sphere. It is indeed controlled by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Row 2 (SFIO): Incorrect. While the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) does investigate complex corporate frauds, it functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.

Row 3 (CBI): Incorrect. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is controlled by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (through the Department of Personnel and Training). However, the function mentioned — “To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy” — is actually the mandate of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), not the CBI. The CBI’s core functions relate to investigation of serious crimes, anti-corruption cases, and economic offences.

Therefore, only one of the three rows is correctly matched.

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Statement 1 is incorrect. The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras — Prakriti (Nature), Purusha (Humanity), and Pragyana (Consciousness) — and not “People, Planning, and Progress.” This triadic framework drew from ancient Indian philosophical thought to guide ethical and inclusive AI development.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Preamble does emphasise democratising AI resources and promoting locally relevant innovation. However, it does not describe the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a “binding framework.” The language used is that of a “voluntary guiding principle” that respects national sovereignty and laws, rather than a legally binding instrument.

Statement 3 is correct. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was indeed structured around seven Chakras (Pillars). These included: Access for Social Empowerment AI for Science Secure and Trusted AI along with four other pillars focused on ethics, governance, sustainability, and global collaboration.

Thus, only Statement 3 is factually accurate.

Statement 1 is correct. The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a key component of India-ASEAN connectivity cooperation. It aims to connect the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe Port in Myanmar’s Rakhine State by sea, and then link it to India’s northeastern states via river and road transport. This project is explicitly listed under India’s Act East Policy and ASEAN-India connectivity initiatives.

Statement 2 is correct. The India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway is a flagship trilateral infrastructure project that connects India’s northeastern region with Southeast Asia. It is actively promoted under the India-ASEAN connectivity framework and is intended to enhance trade, tourism, and people-to-people linkages with multiple ASEAN member countries.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line is a bilateral India-Bangladesh project aimed at improving cross-border rail connectivity between Tripura (India) and Bangladesh. While important for regional connectivity, it is not classified as part of India-ASEAN cooperation, as Bangladesh is not a member of ASEAN.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 qualify as part of India-ASEAN connectivity cooperation.

The Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is a 720 MW run-of-the-river power project situated on the Mangdechhu River in central Bhutan. Developed with India’s financial and technical support, it was jointly inaugurated by the Prime Ministers of India and Bhutan in 2019. Hence, A is correctly matched with 3.

The Restoration of Stor Palace relates to the renovation of a historic 19th-century palace in Kabul, Afghanistan, also known as Qasr-e-Storay. India financed the restoration work in partnership with the Aga Khan Trust for Culture, and the restored palace was jointly inaugurated by the leaders of India and Afghanistan in 2016. Therefore, B corresponds to 2.

The District Hospital at Dickoya is a 150-bed multi-specialty healthcare facility located in Hatton, Sri Lanka. Constructed with Indian grant assistance, it was primarily intended to address the healthcare requirements of Indian-origin Tamil plantation workers in Sri Lanka’s Central Province. Thus, C matches with 4.

The Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies is situated in Addu City, Maldives, and has now been inaugurated as the National College of Policing and Law Enforcement (NCPLE). The institution was built entirely through Indian grant assistance under a bilateral Memorandum of Understanding. Therefore, D matches with 1.

Accordingly, the correct matching is A-3, B-2, C-4, and D-1, which corresponds to Option B.

Statement 1 is correct. The Su-30 MKI is a twin-engine multirole fighter aircraft that is manufactured in India under licence by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) at its Nashik Division. While the base design is Russian (Sukhoi), a significant portion of the airframe, avionics integration, and final assembly is carried out indigenously under the licensed production programme.

Statement 2 is correct. The T-90 MK-III (also referred to as Bhishma in Indian service) is an upgraded variant of the Russian T-90 main battle tank. It is manufactured in India by the Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF) in Avadi under licence from Russia. India has progressively increased the indigenous content in successive batches.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Akula Class (Project 971) is a nuclear-powered attack submarine of Russian origin. While India has leased Akula-class boats (INS Chakra series) from Russia, these submarines are designed, built, and fully manufactured in Russia. No Akula-class submarine has been manufactured in India.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Colombo Process is a voluntary, non-binding regional consultative process on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour for countries of origin in Asia. It operates on consensus but does not take “binding decisions.” Its core nature is consultative and non-binding, similar to other RCPs.

Statement 2 is correct. The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary, non-binding consultative forum launched in 2008. It brings together Asian labour-sending and labour-receiving countries to enhance cooperation on contractual labour mobility, skills development, and protection of migrant workers. It explicitly avoids legally binding commitments.

Statement 3 is correct. The Global Forum on Migration and Development (GFMD) was established in 2007 following a proposal by then-UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan. It is a voluntary, government-led, non-binding platform for dialogue on migration and development issues. All outcomes and decisions remain non-binding in nature. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

The World Food Programme (WFP) received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020 for its efforts to fight hunger and to prevent the use of starvation as a tool in war and conflict situations.

The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965 in recognition of its humanitarian initiatives and its contribution toward strengthening international solidarity.

The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has won the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and again in 1981. The first award acknowledged its work in assisting refugees after the Second World War, while the second recognized its continued efforts in safeguarding the rights and welfare of refugees across the world.

The International Labour Organization (ILO) received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 for promoting better labour conditions, advancing social justice, and contributing to international peace.

Thus, among the four organizations mentioned, only one organisation—UNHCR—has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia) functioned from 2003 to 2018. MINURCAT (United Nations Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad) remained operational between 2007 and 2010. MINUSTAH (United Nations Stabilization Mission in Haiti) worked from 2004 to 2017. UNMISET (United Nations Mission of Support in East Timor) operated during the period 2002 to 2005.

A. UNMIL – matched with 3 (2003–2018): Correct. UNMIL was created in 2003 following Liberia’s civil conflict and continued its operations until 2018.

B. MINURCAT – matched with 1 (2007–2010): Correct. MINURCAT was established in 2007 to address instability and humanitarian concerns in Chad and the Central African Republic, and its mandate ended in 2010.

C. MINUSTAH – matched with 4 (2004–2017): Correct. MINUSTAH was deployed in Haiti in 2004 and remained active until 2017.

D. UNMISET – matched with 2 (2002–2005): Correct. UNMISET succeeded the United Nations Transitional Administration in East Timor (UNTAET) in 2002 and completed its mission in 2005.

Therefore, the correct matching is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

BIMSTEC refers to the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation. It has established a number of specialized centres to strengthen technical collaboration, research, and capacity-building among its seven member countries.

These centres are distributed across different member states so that regional expertise and resources can be effectively utilized instead of being concentrated in a single country.

Statement Analysis

A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory in Thimphu: Correct. This centre is located in Bhutan and focuses on promoting cultural cooperation among member nations.

B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre in Bengaluru: Correct. Situated in India, this centre works toward enhancing cooperation and information sharing in the energy sector.

C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate in NOIDA: Correct. Established in India, this institution is dedicated to advanced research related to weather and climate.

D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility in Colombo: Correct. Located in Sri Lanka, the facility aims to support member countries in strengthening technological capabilities and facilitating technology transfer.

The Indian Army’s 33 Corps, also called the Trishul Corps, is headquartered at Sukna near Siliguri in West Bengal, not in Srinagar. The 3 Corps is based in Dimapur, Nagaland, and handles operations in the northeastern region. The 4 Corps has its headquarters in Tezpur, Assam, while the 14 Corps, known as the Fire and Fury Corps, is headquartered in Leh and is responsible for the Ladakh sector. The corps stationed in Srinagar is actually the 15 Corps, also known as the Chinar Corps.

(a) 3 Corps – Dimapur: Correct. The headquarters of 3 Corps is in Dimapur.

(b) 4 Corps – Tezpur: Correct. The 4 Corps is headquartered in Tezpur, Assam.

(c) 14 Corps – Leh: Correct. The 14 Corps (Fire and Fury Corps) is based in Leh.

(d) 33 Corps – Srinagar: Incorrect. The 33 Corps is headquartered at Sukna in West Bengal, whereas the corps located in Srinagar is the 15 Corps.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

Ministry of Panchayati Raj runs the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) as a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions and improving their capacity for efficient rural governance. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the continuation of the revamped RGSA in line with the recommendations of the Fifteenth Finance Commission period.

Statement 1:The implementation period is from 1 April 2021 to 31 March 2026 — Incorrect. The revamped RGSA is being implemented from 1 April 2022 to 31 March 2026.

Statement 2:The main objective of the revamped RGSA is to enhance the governance abilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals — Correct. The scheme focuses on improving the governance capacity of Panchayats so they can contribute effectively to the Sustainable Development Goals through local-level initiatives.

Statement 3:The Central Government provides 100% funding for the revamped RGSA to all States and Union Territories — Incorrect. The funding pattern differs across regions:

60:40 between Centre and States for general States, 90:10 for North Eastern and hilly States, and 100% Central funding only for Union Territories.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Poland and Germany are founding/early members of the European Union (EU), with both countries actively participating in its institutions, policies, and the Eurozone (Germany) or Schengen Area. Belarus is not an EU member and maintains close ties with Russia through the Union State. Switzerland is also not an EU member; it participates in the Schengen Area and has bilateral agreements with the EU but has consistently rejected full membership through referendums.

European Union official membership list (27 countries as of 2024): Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Cyprus, Czechia, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden. Switzerland: EFTA member with bilateral treaties; rejected EEA membership in 1992 and EU accession in multiple referendums. Belarus: Not an EU candidate; subject to EU sanctions and part of the Eurasian Economic Union framework with Russia.

INTERPOL uses different colour-coded notices to share important information among its member countries, with each notice serving a distinct purpose.

* **Silver Notice** is issued to identify and track criminal assets.

* **Blue Notice** helps gather additional details regarding a person’s identity, whereabouts, or activities connected to a criminal investigation.

* **Black Notice** is used to seek information about unidentified dead bodies.

* **Green Notice** serves as a warning about individuals involved in criminal activities who may pose a threat to public safety.

**Correct Matching:**

* A. Silver Notice → 4 (To identify and trace criminal assets)

* B. Blue Notice → 2 (To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities related to a criminal investigation)

* C. Black Notice → 1 (To seek information on unidentified bodies)

* D. Green Notice → 3 (To warn about a person’s criminal activities when they may threaten public safety)

Therefore, the correct matching is A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to Option C.

NIRANTAR is a new knowledge platform launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to strengthen scientific research, ecosystem assessment, and capacity building for climate resilience and biodiversity conservation.

Statement 1 is correct: “Ecosystem Survey and Analysis” is one of the core verticals under NIRANTAR. The Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata has been designated as the lead institute for this vertical.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The vertical “Research and Management of Ecosystem Services” is led by the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun, not by the Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. The Central Zoo Authority focuses on ex-situ conservation and zoo management, not on this particular vertical.

Statement 3 is correct: “Capacity Development Support” is a dedicated vertical under NIRANTAR, with the Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal serving as the lead institute. IIFM’s mandate in training, policy research, and human-resource development makes it the natural nodal agency for this vertical.

Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are accurate.

The official visit of German Chancellor Friedrich Merz to India in January 2026 produced several concrete outcomes in the fields of traditional medicine, sports, strategic dialogue, and consular expansion. However, statements 1 and 4 do not correspond to actual agreements or events from this visit.

Statement 1 is incorrect: No MoU was signed between the All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA) and the University of Hamburg during this visit. While Indo-German cooperation in Ayurveda and medical research exists, no such specific agreement was concluded in January 2026.

Statement 2 is correct: A Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development was indeed signed between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation (Deutscher Hockey-Bund) to promote grassroots talent exchange and coaching programmes.

Statement 3 is correct: Both sides agreed to establish a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific to enhance maritime security cooperation, rules-based order, and coordination in the Quad-plus format.

Statement 4 is incorrect: No new Honorary Consulate of Germany was opened in Lucknow during this visit. Germany already maintains consulates in Mumbai, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Chennai; the expansion of its consular network in Tier-II cities remains under discussion but was not announced in January 2026. Therefore, the outcomes that are not correct are statements 1 and 4.

DHRUV64 is a significant milestone in India’s indigenous microprocessor development journey under the Design Innovation and Research of VLSI (DIR-V) Programme, spearheaded by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) with support from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

Statement 1 is correct: DHRUV64 is the third chip successfully fabricated under the DIR-V Programme. The programme’s overarching objective is to build domestic design expertise and enable the creation of indigenous microprocessors for strategic and commercial applications in India.

Statement 2 is correct: It is India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor, designed on a 6nm process technology. The chip incorporates advanced features such as out-of-order execution, vector processing units, and support for Linux-based operating systems, marking a major step toward self-reliance in semiconductor design.

Thus, both statements are factually accurate.

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has notified IS 19445:2025 — “Test and Performance Requirements for Bomb Disposal Equipment” — as the first national standard for evaluating bomb disposal systems used by police, paramilitary forces, and internal security agencies.

Statement 1 is correct: The standard is officially designated as IS 19445: 2025 and was formally released in 2025.

Statement 2 is correct: The standard establishes uniform test protocols for blast containment, remote handling, X-ray systems, and protective gear. This will significantly improve interoperability of equipment across different Central and State agencies, reduce duplication, and enable smoother joint operations.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The standard was developed indigenously by the Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), Chandigarh (a DRDO laboratory) in collaboration with the Bureau of Indian Standards and Indian bomb disposal units. There was no collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia for this particular standard.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Born in the UK: John Clarke fits as the laureate born in the United Kingdom. Professor in an American university: He was a Professor at University of California, Berkeley (USA) when the prize was announced in 2025.

Other options do not match both conditions simultaneously:

Michel H. Devoret: Co-laureate in Physics but not specified as UK-born.

Richard Robson: Chemistry laureate, born in Australia.

Joel Mokyr: Economics laureate, affiliated with Northwestern University (USA), but not UK-born.

The four Grand Slam tournaments in professional tennis are the Australian Open, Roland Garros, Wimbledon, and the US Open. These are regarded as the most prestigious events in tennis and offer the highest prize money as well as ranking points. The rules related to these tournaments, including eligibility criteria and wild card participation, are provided in the official Grand Slam Rulebook released every year.

Statement 1:The tournaments follow a common governance structure that forms a partnership among the four Grand Slam events — Correct. The Grand Slam Board acts as a joint governance body linking the four major tournaments along with the International Tennis Federation.

Statement 2:The tournaments are open to all internationally ranked players aged 14 years or above — Correct. As per the Grand Slam Rulebook, any internationally ranked player who is at least 14 years old is eligible to enter.

Statement 3:There is a restriction on how many Wild Cards a player can receive to participate in Grand Slam tournaments — Incorrect. The rulebook clearly mentions that there is no fixed limit on the number of Wild Cards a player may obtain for Grand Slam events.

The pair HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd.: Madhya Pradesh is not correctly matched, as the actual location is Jewar, Uttar Pradesh.

Key Semiconductor Projects in India

1. CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. Partnership Partners: Renesas Electronics (Japan) and Stars Microelectronics (Thailand).

Location: Sanand, Gujarat.

Project Details: ATMP (Assembly, Testing, Marking, and Packaging) unit with a pilot line inaugurated in August 2025; first among 10 ISM-supported projects to open pilot line.

Investment and Status: Part of ₹7,600 crore project with 50% Union government support; commercial chip production expected soon.

2. Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd.

Location: Morigaon, Assam.

Project Details: Semiconductor Assembly and Test unit; production of “Made in India” chips slated to begin in 2026 for automobile and telecom sectors.

Significance: Largest semiconductor plant in Assam, supporting North-East development under ‘Ashta Lakshmi’ vision.

3. HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture (India Chip Ltd.) Location: Jewar, Uttar Pradesh (not Madhya Pradesh).

Project Details: Display driver chip manufacturing unit approved in May 2025; ₹3,700 crore investment; expected to produce 36 million chips monthly from 20,000 wafers.

Applications: Chips for laptops, PCs, phones, and automobiles; sixth unit under first phase of India Semiconductor Mission (ISM).

4. SiCSem Pvt. Ltd.

Location: Odisha (in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd., UK).

Project Details: India’s first commercial Silicon Carbide (SiC) compound semiconductor fab; approved in August 2025 with ₹4,600 crore for four new projects in Odisha, Punjab, and Andhra Pradesh.

Timeline: Commercial production expected in about two years from September 2025.

Bharat Forecast System (BFS) The Bharat Forecast System (BFS) is India’s indigenously developed, world’s highest-resolution numerical weather prediction model with a 6 km x 6 km grid, enabling hyper-local forecasts. Launched on May 26, 2025 by the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences, it marks a significant upgrade over the previous 12 km resolution model.

Key Features of BFS

1. Resolution and Forecast Capability Provides highly localized, short-term weather forecasts up to panchayat level using ultra-high-resolution grids. Focuses on improvements in short- and medium-term forecasts (3- and 7-day lead times) for accurate prediction of small-scale weather features, including heavy rainfall events. Developed using India’s supercomputer Arka (11.77 petaflops capacity) at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.

2. Development and Implementation Developed by scientists at IITM, Pune, led by researcher Parthasarathi Mukhopadhyay (also referred to as Parthasarathy Mukhopadhayay). Adopted by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) on May 26, 2025, after testing since 2002. Supports applications in agriculture, disaster management, and extreme weather alerts, with further advancements like block-level monsoon arrival forecasts in subsequent updates.

Evaluation of Statements

Statement 1: Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. This is correct. The BFS explicitly aims to deliver forecasts at the panchayat level (often described as panchayat cluster level in localized contexts), surpassing district or state-level predictions for precision in monsoon and rainfall alerts.

Statement 2: It was developed by IIT Delhi. This is incorrect. The system was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not by IIT Delhi.

Correct Option: 1 only

Statement 1: Correct. The Manipuri-language coming-of-age drama film Boong recently received the British Academy of Film and Television Arts Awards in the Best Children’s and Family Film category. It competed with major international productions such as Zootopia 2 and Lilo & Stitch.

Statement 2: Correct. The film was written and directed by debut filmmaker Lakshmipriya Devi and jointly produced by Farhan Akhtar and Ritesh Sidhwani under Excel entertainment.

Statement 3: Correct. Boong became the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Best Children’s and Family Film category.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option A.

Explanation of Statements:

Statement 1 is correct. Blockchain’s distributed ledger design ensures that once data is recorded and validated across the network, authorized stakeholders can view records with cryptographic guarantees against unauthorized alteration.

Statement 2 is correct. In a blockchain network, every participating node maintains a complete copy of the ledger. New blocks are propagated and synchronized across nodes typically within seconds through consensus mechanisms such as Proof of Work or Proof of Stake.

Statement 3 is incorrect in the given wording. While a consortium (or federated) blockchain does combine elements of public and private models and allows selective data access, the phrasing “blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access” is imprecise and not the standard technical description used in most civil services materials. Consortium blockchains are permissioned networks managed by a group of organizations rather than a simple blend. This makes the statement flawed for this question.

Statement 4 is correct. Once a transaction is added to a block and the block is accepted via consensus, mathematical properties of cryptographic hash functions (especially the chaining of hash pointers) make it computationally infeasible to alter or delete the data without detection and rejection by the network.

Thus, statements 1, 2, and 4 are accurate. The correct option is 1, 2 and 4.

In the Dropshipping Model, the e-commerce seller (retailer) lists products on their website and sets the selling price, but does not hold any inventory. When a customer places an order, the seller forwards the order details and shipment information to a third-party supplier or manufacturer, who then ships the product directly to the customer. The seller earns the difference between the selling price and the supplier’s price as profit. This model significantly reduces inventory risk and overhead costs for the seller.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Affiliate Revenue Model: The website earns commission by promoting other companies’ products through referral links; it does not involve setting prices or fulfilling orders.

Transaction Fee Revenue Model: The platform (e.g., eBay, Razorpay) charges a fee for each transaction processed on its marketplace; it does not involve selling physical goods.

Agency Revenue Model: Typically refers to an advertising or brokerage agency earning fees for representing clients; it is unrelated to inventory-free product sales.

This concept is frequently tested in UPSC CSE Prelims (Economy & Current Affairs) and is covered in NITI Aayog reports on e-commerce and digital economy.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) in 2021 to measure the extent of financial inclusion across the country. It is a comprehensive index that captures the multidimensional aspects of financial inclusion in a single number ranging between 0 and 100.

The FI-Index is constructed using three broad parameters (sub-indices) with the following weights:

Access (35%) Usage (45%) Quality (20%) These three sub-indices together reflect the depth and quality of financial inclusion by covering availability of financial services, actual usage by households and businesses, and the quality aspects such as financial literacy, consumer protection, and grievance redressal mechanisms.

The index is released annually on the occasion of World Savings Day (31st October) and is used to track progress under the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion.

India’s Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a government-backed, open-source, interoperable protocol designed to democratize digital commerce. Its core objective is to create an open, decentralized network that allows buyers, sellers, and service providers to interact seamlessly across different platforms without being locked into proprietary ecosystems of large e-commerce companies. By enabling interoperability, ONDC aims to reduce the dominance of a few big platforms, lower entry barriers for small sellers and new platforms, and foster greater competition and innovation in the e-commerce ecosystem.

This model is analogous to how UPI revolutionized digital payments by breaking the monopoly of individual payment apps. ONDC applies similar principles to buying and selling goods and services.

Option A: Correct. Unified Payments Interface is a real-time payment system that enables the transfer of fiat money already deposited in bank accounts. In contrast, the Digital Rupee (e₹) is a sovereign digital currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India and serves as the digital form of physical currency.

Option B: Correct. In UPI transactions, funds are transferred instantly between bank accounts, though inter-bank settlement occurs in the background. With the Digital Rupee, transactions take place directly between digital wallets, and the transfer of the e₹ token itself ensures immediate and final settlement without requiring separate bank-mediated settlement.

Option C: Correct. Since UPI transactions are linked to bank accounts, each transaction appears in the user’s bank statement. Digital Rupee transactions, however, are conducted wallet-to-wallet, so peer-to-peer transfers are not reflected in bank statements; only the loading or withdrawal of e₹ from a bank account is recorded.

Option D: Incorrect. Funds transferred through UPI are commercial bank money, making the liability that of the respective commercial banks. The Digital Rupee, being a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), is a direct liability of the RBI and carries sovereign backing rather than commercial bank liability.

Therefore, Option D is the correct answer.

Explanation of Statements:

Statement 1 is correct. Tokenization is the process of converting rights to an asset (such as real estate, bonds, commodities, or art) into a digital token on a blockchain. This creates a digital representation of ownership that can be easily transferred, traded, or fractionated using distributed ledger technology.

Statement 2 is correct. Because blockchain networks operate continuously, tokenized Real-World Assets (RWAs) provide 24×7 global access and liquidity. This removes traditional barriers such as banking hours, geographic restrictions, and intermediaries, thereby promoting greater financial inclusion for retail investors and underserved populations.

Statement 3 is correct. Tokenization enables fractional ownership, allowing individuals in India to invest in high-value assets (e.g., commercial real estate, private credit, or infrastructure projects) with relatively small amounts of capital. This democratizes access to previously exclusive, high-growth investment opportunities that were earlier limited to institutional investors or high-net-worth individuals.

All three statements accurately reflect the key features and benefits of RWA tokenization as recognized by regulators and industry reports in India. Therefore, the correct option is 1, 2 and 3.

A Sustainability Bond is a debt instrument whose proceeds are used exclusively to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental (green) and social projects. It differs from a pure Green Bond (which funds only environmental projects) or a Social Bond (which funds only social projects). The International Capital Market Association (ICMA) provides clear guidelines for labelling such bonds under the Sustainability Bond Guidelines.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Green Bond: Proceeds are used solely for environmentally beneficial projects (e.g., renewable energy, clean transportation).

Social Bond: Proceeds are directed only toward social objectives (e.g., affordable housing, healthcare, education).

Sovereign Bond: A generic term for bonds issued by a national government, unrelated to the use of proceeds for ESG objectives.

Statement 1 is incorrect. M1xchange does not provide collateral-based loans. It operates as a digital platform for invoice financing (TReDS – Trade Receivables Discounting System) and does not extend traditional secured loans against collateral such as property or machinery.

Statement 2 is correct. M1xchange is a leading TReDS platform that enables MSMEs to discount their invoices and Bills of Exchange. This allows MSMEs to receive early payment from financiers against their receivables from large buyers, thereby improving their working capital and cash flow without taking on debt in the conventional sense.

Statement 3 is incorrect. M1xchange is not a credit rating agency. It functions purely as a receivables discounting platform. Credit rating for MSMEs is carried out by agencies such as CRISIL, CARE, ICRA, or SMERA.

Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.

The Crowding Out Effect is a key concept in macroeconomics that occurs when increased government spending, financed through borrowing, leads to higher interest rates. This rise in interest rates makes borrowing more expensive for the private sector, thereby reducing (or “crowding out”) private investment and consumption. It essentially describes how expansionary fiscal policy can unintentionally dampen private economic activity.

This phenomenon is particularly relevant in the Indian context when the government resorts to heavy market borrowing to finance its fiscal deficit, which can put upward pressure on bond yields and lending rates, affecting corporate investment.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Private investment increasing due to government spending describes the “crowding in” effect, not crowding out.

An increase in taxes leading to higher private investment does not align with standard fiscal theory.

Claiming government spending has no impact on aggregate demand contradicts the basic multiplier effect in Keynesian economics.

Statement 1 is correct. Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are indispensable for high-tech applications. They are extensively used in Artificial Intelligence hardware, robotics, electric vehicle motors, wind turbines, advanced defence systems, and space exploration technologies due to their unique magnetic, luminescent, and electrochemical properties.

Statement 2 is incorrect. China dominates global REE mining with approximately 60–70% of world production. However, the second-largest producer is Australia, followed by the United States and Myanmar. India has the world’s fifth-largest REE reserves but its current mining and processing share is very small (less than 1%) due to technological and environmental constraints.

Statement 3 is correct. In 2025, the Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) to reduce import dependence, boost domestic exploration, processing, and recycling of critical minerals and REEs, and create an end-to-end ecosystem for self-reliance in strategic sectors.

Statement 4 is incorrect. Rare Earth Elements are a group of 17 chemically similar metallic elements — the 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium — not 13.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is correct. Aviation Hull Insurance is a specialized property insurance that covers the physical aircraft itself — including the airframe (body), engines, avionics, and other on-board equipment — against risks such as damage from accidents, fire, theft, or natural perils. It is one of the two primary pillars of aviation insurance, the other being Aviation Liability Insurance.

Statement 2 is correct. The Montreal Convention 1999 (formally the Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules for International Carriage by Air) replaced the older Warsaw Convention. It has been ratified by India and more than 130 countries. Under this convention, airlines are strictly liable for passenger death or bodily injury up to a specified limit (currently SDR 128,821 per passenger as of 2025) without the need for the claimant to prove fault or negligence on the part of the airline. This “strict liability” principle significantly simplifies and accelerates compensation to families of deceased passengers.

Therefore, both statements are factually accurate.

Statement 1 is correct. Crowdfunding is a method of raising capital through the collective effort of a large number of individuals, typically via internet-based platforms or social networking sites. It involves soliciting small amounts from a large number of investors to fund a specific project, business venture, or social cause. This definition aligns with the standard understanding used in financial regulation and policy discussions in India.

Statement 2 is correct. For Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs), crowdfunding provides an alternative funding route that often has a lower cost of capital compared to traditional bank loans or venture capital. It allows SMEs to bypass some of the lengthy due diligence, collateral requirements, and rigorous procedural formalities associated with conventional financing. In India, platforms regulated by SEBI (under the Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements Regulations) have further facilitated this for start-ups and SMEs.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Explanation of each row:

Row 1 – Incorrect. The R.N. Malhotra Committee (1993) was constituted by the Government of India to recommend comprehensive reforms in the insurance sector. Its recommendations led to the creation of IRDAI, but the committee itself was not formed under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (which did not exist at that time).

Row 2 – Correct. The L.C. Gupta Committee was set up by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1996 to prepare a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India. Its recommendations paved the way for equity derivatives trading on Indian stock exchanges.

Row 3 – Incorrect. The Urjit R. Patel Committee (2014) was appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to examine the monetary policy framework and recommend a shift to flexible inflation targeting. It had no connection with reforms in bank lending to the housing sector.

Row 4 – Correct. The Y.H. Malegam Committee was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India in 2010–11 to study the microfinance sector and recommend a regulatory framework following concerns over over-idebtedness and coercive recovery practices. Its recommendations shaped RBI’s approach to microfinance regulation.

Thus, only rows 2 and 4 have all details correctly matched.

Statement 1 is correct. NBFCs are not allowed to accept demand deposits (withdrawals on demand through cheques, drafts, or any other instrument). They can only accept time deposits with a minimum maturity period. This is a key regulatory distinction between NBFCs and commercial banks.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While most NBFCs must register with the RBI, not all are required to do so. Entities engaged in agricultural, industrial, or certain exempted activities, as well as those with asset sizes below ₹1,000 crore (for non-deposit taking NBFCs under specific categories), may not require compulsory registration. Additionally, housing finance companies are regulated by NHB, not RBI. Thus, the word “all” makes this statement factually wrong.

Statement 3 is incorrect. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system. They cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves, nor can they offer demand drafts or participate directly in clearing systems like banks. Only banks are part of the payment and settlement ecosystem.

Statement 4 is correct. Deposit-taking NBFCs are not covered under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) scheme. Depositors of NBFCs do not enjoy the ₹5 lakh insurance protection that bank depositors receive. This is an important risk factor for investors in NBFC deposits.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 4 are correct.

Explanation of Statements:

Statement 1 is correct. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is calculated using the Alkire-Foster methodology, which identifies who is poor by considering multiple deprivations simultaneously and measures the intensity of poverty. Both NITI Aayog and the UNDP’s global MPI are based on this methodology.

Statement 2 is correct. The NITI Aayog’s National MPI (released in 2023) uses 12 indicators across three equally weighted dimensions — Health, Education, and Standard of Living. The indicators are: Nutrition, Child and Adolescent Mortality, Maternal Health, Years of Schooling, School Attendance, Sanitation, Drinking Water, Electricity, Housing, Assets, Bank Account, and Cooking Fuel.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While Maternal Health is indeed one of the 12 indicators used by NITI Aayog, it is not part of the UNDP’s global MPI. The global MPI (UNDP–Oxford) uses 10 indicators and includes indicators such as Nutrition, Child Mortality, Years of Schooling, School Attendance, Sanitation, Drinking Water, Electricity, Housing, Cooking Fuel, and Assets. Bank Account is also exclusive to NITI Aayog’s MPI and is not used in the UNDP global MPI.

Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.